how can I map multiple records to a single record?

I can’t tell whats really going on, without a schema and samples, but if I take your subject line literally, you may need to use the more obscure features of the looping functoid.

Say you have in your source schema a repeating set, but in your destination schema you want it to flatten out… say maybe a repeating <Ph_Number> element in the source schema and a <myphnum1>, <myphnum2> and <myphnum3> element in the destination schema…

Here’s your source:

<loop>
<Ph_Number>1234567</Ph_Number>
<Ph_Number>1212123</Ph_Number>
<Ph_Number>9999999</Ph_Number>
</loop>

And here’s what you want the destination to be:

<myphnum1>1234567</myphnum1>
<myphnum2>1212123</myphnum2>
<myphnum3>9999999</myphnum3>

The trick is to tie the looping functoid to the loop on the source (in my example, the <Ph_Number> element), and connect it THREE TIMES to the destination… once to myphnum1, once to myphnum2, and once to myphnum3.

Then you can use the Iteration Functoid (tied to the <Ph_Number> element) to get whether you’re looking at the first, second, or third <Ph_Number>. Run the Iteration output to 3 different ‘=’ functoids. Each of the ‘=’ functoids will compare the iteration to a 1, 2, or 3 respectively. Wire the three ‘=’ functoids to three value-mapper-flatteners. Also wire the <Ph_Number> element to each of the three value-mapper-flatteners. Then wire the value-mapper-flatteners to <myphnum1>,<myphnum2>, and <myphnum3> elements respectively in the destination schema.

I have this in a diagram that I use when I teach BizTalk… so I can send it to you if you email me. (find me in the Memberlist).

Anyway, the obscure trick to this is that the looping functoid will walk the multiple records in the source schema as many times as its wired to non-repeating elements in the destination schema! Then all you have to do is add enough logic to figure out which record will go to which element… in my example I just used the iteration functoid.